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[Updated 2022] Free share Cisco 200-301 exam questions and answers:
QUESTION 1:
Refer to the exhibit.
Each router must be configured with the last usable IP address in the subnet. Which configuration fulfills this requirement?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2:
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is asked to config router CB-R1 so that it forms an OSPF single-area neighbor relationship with CB-R2.
Which command sequence must be implemented to configure the router?
A. router ospf 10
network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 10.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
B. router ospf 10
network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 10.0.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
C. router ospf 10
network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
D. router ospf 10
network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.252 area 0
network 10.0.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3:
Refer to the exhibit.
How many JSON objects are represented?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4:
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two configurations would be used to create and apply a standard access list on R1, so that only the 10.0.70.0/25 network devices are allowed to access the internal database server? (Choose two)
A. R1(config)# interface GigabitEthernet0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 5 out
B. R1(config)# access-list 5 permit 10.0.54.0 0.0.1.255
C. R1(config)# interface Serial0/0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 5 in
D. R1(config)# access-list 5 permit 10.0.70.0 0.0.0.127
E. R1(config)# access-list 5 permit any
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 5:
Refer to the exhibit. What is the next hop for traffic entering R1 with a destination of 10.1.2.126?
A. 10.165 20.126
B. 10.165.20.146
C. 10.165.20.166
D. 10.165 20.226
Correct Answer: D
……
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Cisco 200-301 Online Exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1:
An engineer must configure an OSPF neighbor relationship between router R1 and R3 The authentication configuration has been configured and the connecting interfaces are in the same 192.168 1.0/30 sublet.
What are the next two steps to complete the configuration? (Choose two.)
A. configure the hello and dead timers to match on both sides
B. configure the same process ID for the router OSPF process
C. configure the same router ID on both routing processes
D. Configure the interfaces as OSPF active on both sides.
E. configure both interfaces with the same area ID
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 2:
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router 1.
The new circuit uses eBGP and learns the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path.
What is the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25?
A. Traffic to 10.10.13.0/25 is load-balanced out of multiple interfaces.
B. Traffic to 10.10.13.0/25 is asymmetrical.
C. Route 10.10.13.0/25 is updated in the routing table as being learned from interface Gi0/1.
D. Route 10.10.13.0/25 learned via the Gi0/0 interface remains in the routing table.
Correct Answer: D
Learned by eBGP, means the same AS, that route will be discarded.
QUESTION 3:
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP All other computers must be able to access the web server.
Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4:
Which 802.11 frame type is the association response?
A. management
B. protected frame
C. action
D. control
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/802.11_Frame_Types
QUESTION 5:
What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?
A. Frames are sent to all ports, including those that are assigned to other VLANs.
B. Frames are sent to every port on the switch that has a matching entry in the MAC address table.
C. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except the originating port.
D. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6:
What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating static route? (Choose two.)
A. to enable fallback static routing when the dynamic routing protocol fails
B. to route traffic differently based on the source IP of the packet
C. to automatically route traffic on a secondary path when the primary path goes down
D. to support load balancing via static routing
E. to control the return path of traffic that is sent from the router
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 7:
Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?
A. infrastructure-as-a-service
B. platform-as-a-service
C. business process as service to support different types of service
D. software-as-a-service
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8:
Refer to the exhibit. Which route type is configured to reach the internet?
A. network route
B. floating static route
C. host route
D. default route
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9:
What software-defined architecture plane assists network devices with making packet-forwarding decisions by providing Layer 2 reachability and Layer 3 routing information?
A. data plane
B. control plane
C. policy plane
D. management plane
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10:
Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship.
What is the reason for the problem?
A. The OSPF router IDs are mismatched.
B. Router2 is using the default hello timer.
C. The network statement on Router1 is misconfigured.
D. The OSPF process IDs are mismatched.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11:
In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?
A. A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them.
B. A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks.
C. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch.
D. A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch.
Correct Answer: C
Spine-leaf architecture is typically deployed as two layers: spines (such as an aggregation layer), and leaves (such as an access layer). Spine-leaf topologies provide high-bandwidth, low-latency, nonblocking server-to-server connectivity.
Leaf (aggregation) switches are what provide devices access to the fabric (the network of spine and leaf switches) and are typically deployed at the top of the rack. Generally, devices connect to the leaf switches.
Devices can include servers, Layer 4-7 services (firewalls and load balancers), and WAN or Internet routers. Leaf switches do not connect to other leaf switches. In spine-and-leaf architecture, every leaf should connect to every spine in a full mesh.
Spine (aggregation) switches are used to connect to all leaf switches and are typically deployed at the end or middle of the row. Spine switches do not connect to other spine switches.
QUESTION 12:
Which two statements about EtherChannel technology are true? (Choose two.)
A. EtherChannel provides increased bandwidth by bundling existing FastEthernet or Gigabit Ethernet interfaces into a single EtherChannel.
B. STP does not block EtherChannel links.
C. You can configure multiple EtherChannel links between two switches, using up to a limit of sixteen physical ports.
D. EtherChannel does not allow load sharing of traffic among the physical links within the EtherChannel.
E. EtherChannel allows redundancy in case one or more links in the EtherChannel fail.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 13:
Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?
A. allows servers and workstations to communicate across public network boundaries
B. provides a reduction in the size of the forwarding table on network routers
C. allows communication across the Internet to other private networks
D. provides an added level of protection against Internet exposure
Correct Answer: A
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