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Question No : 1
Your company has a main office and two branch offices. The main office is located in New York. The Microsoft https://www.leads4pass.com/70-411.html exam branch offices are located in Seattle and Chicago.
The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. An Active Directory site exists for each office. Active Directory site links exist between the main office and the branch offices. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
The domain contains three file servers. The file servers are configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to ensure that replication can occur if NYC-SVR1 fails.
What should you do?
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B. Create an Active Directory site link.
C. Modify the propertiesof Rep1Group.

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Which two statements are true for a two-dimensional array?

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QUESTION 1
The term “Full Motion Video” typically refers to a transmission of video at which rate?
A. Video Frames at a rate of less than 10 per second
B. Video Frames at a rate of greater than 100 per second
C. Video Frames at a rate of less than 24 per second
D. Video Frames at a rate of 24 or more per second
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Which of the following describes Request for Comment documents?
A. Internet Protocol Standards specifications
B. WAN hardware specifications of operations
C. Signal Regeneration specifications
D. Signal Loss specifications
E. Signal to noise ratio specifications
F. LAN hardware specifications
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Video Conferencing Terminals that are designed to tolerate Network delay, packets lost, packets out of sequence, and
jitter are called________.
A. H.321 Terminals
B. H.320 Terminals
C. H.323 Terminals
D. F.150 Terminals
E. T.120 Data Transfer ANSI Terminals.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following are two examples of Fiber Optic interface problems? (Choose two of the following options.)
A. Splice loss and connection loss
B. Noise
C. Gravity
D. Cable bends
E. EMI – Electro Magnetic Interference
F. RFI Radio Frequency Interference
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 5
E1 framing has a bit structure of how many bits per frame?
Clue Full metallic E1 speed divided by 8KHz Stratum timing.
A. 200
B. 240
C. 256
D. 300
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
Which of the following Standards defines multiple video channels during a Visual Telephony meeting?
A. H.239
B. H.320
C. H.221
D. H.323
E. H.225
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
Which Network Services speeds are governed by cable length and cable wire gauge?
A. Packet Switching
B. Integrated Services Digital Network Primary Rate
C. D-Channels
D. B-Channels
E. Digital Subscriber Line Services
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 8
Media Gateways will:
A. process information for Video File Transfers.
B. process audio for Multipoint Conferencing.
C. provide Bearer to Bearer Channel Switching.
D. provide Bearer Channel termination and Media Stream termination and conversion.
E. terminate Packet Networks.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
The Bandwidth on Demand Interoperability Group created four modes for standardized Inverse Multiplexing. Which
mode is best compatible with H.320/221 Video Conferencing?
A. Mode 1
B. Mode 2
C. Mode 3
D. Mode 4
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
What effect does natural daylight from a window have on video?
A. It causes the video to be out of focus.
B. It causes the picture to have a bluish tint.
C. It causes the iris to close, which makes images appear dark.
D. It causes the iris to open, which makes images appear bright
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 11
Of the following names, which two apply to S-Video?
A. Synchronous Video
B. Y/C Video
C. Separate Video
D. Select Video
E. Standard Video
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 12
Using different color-temperature light sources will compromise which part of the camera performance?
A. Brightness
B. White Balance
C. Field of View
D. PTZ
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
Which of the following communication signal procedures are required for a H.323 Videoconferencing over IP call to
establish? (Select three)
A. Capability Exchange Signals
B. Selected Communication Mode Signals
C. Frame Alignment and Bit Rate Allocation Signal
D. Master/Slave Determination
E. Logical Channel Signaling
Correct Answer: ADE

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QUESTION 1
Verification of project deliverables occurs during which process?
A. Develop preliminary project scope statement
B. Close Project or Phase
C. Develop project charter
D. Create WBS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which of the following types of a dependency determination is used to define the sequence of activities?
A. Legal
B. Discretionary
C. Internal
D. Resource
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What is project management?
A. A logical grouping of project management inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques
B. Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements
C. Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project
D. A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is an example of push communication?
A. Intranet sites
B. Video conferencing
C. Knowledge repositories
D. Press releases
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Typical outcomes of a project include:
A. Products, services, and improvements.
B. Products, programs, and services.
C. Improvements, portfolios, and services.
D. Improvements, processes, and products.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
An element of the project scope statement is:
A. Acceptance criteria.
B. A stakeholder list.
C. A summary budget,
D. High-level risks.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
The Perform Integrated Change Control process occurs in which Process Group?
A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Planning
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
A. Project document updates
B. Organizational process assets updates
C. Change requests
D. Deliverables
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which process should be conducted from the project inception through completion?
A. Monitor and Control Project Work
B. Perform Quality Control
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Monitor and Control Risks
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What is the risk rating if the probability of occurrence is 0.30 and the impact if it does occur is moderate (0.20)?
A. 0.03
B. 0.06
C. 0.10
D. 0.50
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated
with each activity?
A. Project document updates
B. Activity list
C. Activity attributes
D. Project calendars
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?
A. Cost Control
B. Cost Budgeting
C. Cost Estimating
D. Cost Planning
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is called risk:
A. appetite
B. tolerance
C. threshold
D. management
Correct Answer: B

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